1 Cor 10:13 Misinterpreted?

[Archaea]

Originally Posted by pelagius

Jay, I think you are being too hard on the standard interpretation. I think grace is pretty fully part of it. Even in that view the idea isn't that you can overcame temptation by yourself it is that because you have entered into a covenant with God that he will give you the strength to "escape" from the temptation. The last part of the verse clearly indicates that God will make an escape possible. I don't think I have heard the standard view ever contradict that notion. That makes this verse very much about grace.

My only objection is to the word "temptation." I think Paul is talking more generally about testing from God as reflecting in modern translations. Still, its not like the word temptation is that far off:

πειρασμὸς

has both meanings, trial or to temptation. It's used twice in this scripture. However the second time it's used as a aorist infinitive.

So Pelagius, I agree with you. Let AA or Solon contradict me.

πειρασμὸς ὑμᾶς οὐκ εἴληφεν εἰ μὴ ἀνθρώπινος πιστὸς δὲ ὁ θεός ὃς οὐκ ἐάσει ὑμᾶς πειρασθῆναι ὑπὲρ ὃ δύνασθε ἀλλὰ ποιήσει σὺν τῷ πειρασμῷ καὶ τὴν ἔκβασιν τοῦ δύνασθαι ὑπενεγκεῖν