Greek Scholars:

[Archaea]

Why is the Greek Septuagint and the Greek Bible so different?

Here is a link and scroll down.

http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/40-8.htm

[All-American]

That's modern Greek, is it not? Italian is quite a bit different than Latin, too.

Actually, I thumbed through a bible in modern Greek not too long ago, and I was really surprised by how similar they were. The main thing that makes this verse different is the inclusion of the first clause:

"Ο χορτος εξηρανθη, το ανθος εμαρανθη·"

Apparently, some manuscripts include this clause and it made it into the Greek bible, but not the Septuagint. In the clause that IS included, the only difference is that one uses "ρημα" and the other "λογος" for "word".

[Archaea]

Originally Posted by All-American

That's modern Greek, is it not? Italian is quite a bit different than Latin, too.

Actually, I thumbed through a bible in modern Greek not too long ago, and I was really surprised by how similar they were.

I see more akin to a variation on older English to modern English.

But you will notice the logos concept exists in new Greek but not in koine Greek.

[SeattleUte]

Originally Posted by Archaea

But you will notice the logos concept exists in new Greek but not in koine Greek.

I don't think it belongs in the Hebrew bible.