01-15-2008, 03:25 PM | #1 |
Assistant to the Regional Manager
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: The Orgasmatron
Posts: 24,338
|
Greek Scholars:
Why is the Greek Septuagint and the Greek Bible so different?
Here is a link and scroll down. http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/40-8.htm
__________________
Ἓν οἶδα ὅτι οὐδὲν οἶδα |
01-15-2008, 04:55 PM | #2 |
Senior Member
|
That's modern Greek, is it not? Italian is quite a bit different than Latin, too.
Actually, I thumbed through a bible in modern Greek not too long ago, and I was really surprised by how similar they were. The main thing that makes this verse different is the inclusion of the first clause: "Ο χορτος εξηρανθη, το ανθος εμαρανθη·" Apparently, some manuscripts include this clause and it made it into the Greek bible, but not the Septuagint. In the clause that IS included, the only difference is that one uses "ρημα" and the other "λογος" for "word".
__________________
εν αρχη ην ο λογος Last edited by All-American; 01-15-2008 at 04:59 PM. |
01-15-2008, 04:56 PM | #3 | |
Assistant to the Regional Manager
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: The Orgasmatron
Posts: 24,338
|
Quote:
But you will notice the logos concept exists in new Greek but not in koine Greek.
__________________
Ἓν οἶδα ὅτι οὐδὲν οἶδα |
|
01-15-2008, 06:26 PM | #4 |
Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Seattle, WA
Posts: 10,665
|
I don't think it belongs in the Hebrew bible.
__________________
Interrupt all you like. We're involved in a complicated story here, and not everything is quite what it seems to be. —Paul Auster |
Bookmarks |
|
|