03-29-2007, 07:53 PM | #1 | ||||
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John 5: to foontote or not to footnote
Last week while preparing my gospel doctrine lesson (#12) I noticed the following footnote associated with John 5:1 in the LDS edition of the King James Bible (http://scriptures.lds.org/en/john/5/1a):
The verse: Quote:
Quote:
Now if we look at verse 4, there is no footnote: Quote:
Quote:
1) Why a footnote in verse 1 that mentions manuscript variation but no footnote in verse 4 when there is a large amount of consensus that verse 4 is a late addition? 2) Is it because variation in a single word ("a" or "the") is no big deal, but a whole verse would be a big deal (particularly without providing a lot more context)? |
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03-29-2007, 07:59 PM | #2 |
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As you know, I really have no idea, but perhaps it is because the footnote for verse 1 assists in setting a chronology but neither the suggested interpretation nor the implied alternative changes the substance of the event or the import of the described actions, whereas removing a verse might be seen as doing so and, as you note, would be much harder to explain without much more significant exposition.
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03-29-2007, 08:06 PM | #3 |
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What you are really asking is what was the process used to create the footnotes in this modern edition of the scriptures. It was before my time. Maybe SU can tell us. He may have still been active then.
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03-29-2007, 08:07 PM | #4 | |
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Quote:
Last edited by pelagius; 03-29-2007 at 08:09 PM. |
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03-29-2007, 08:10 PM | #5 |
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That is an excellent question.
Do we know (specifically) who wrote the footnotes in the LDS KJV of the Bible? I've often thought they were less than systematic, and we don't even need to start with the chapter headings.
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03-29-2007, 08:15 PM | #6 |
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Yes, I would like to see an interview of the committee and what they saw as the overriding principles when it come to these issues. However, I suppose I also wanted to get a sense of whether a footnote that suggested a whole verse was "an addition" would be problematic? Is a whole verse too much to explain with "the translated correctly clause?" Is it because a typical member would expect a JST correction if the verse was really a "late addition?"
Last edited by pelagius; 03-29-2007 at 08:55 PM. |
03-29-2007, 08:18 PM | #7 |
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I thought it was parley p pratt who did the footnotes
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03-29-2007, 08:23 PM | #8 |
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Orson Pratt edited the 1879 edition of the Book of Mormon and is responsible for the footnotes in that edition. I have a 1879 edition and the footnotes are fun. For example, he identifies the location of Zarahemla in one of the footnotes.
Last edited by pelagius; 03-29-2007 at 09:02 PM. |
03-29-2007, 08:36 PM | #9 | ||
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Quote:
Wm. James Mortimer, “The Coming Forth of the LDS Editions of Scripture,” Ensign, Aug 1983, 35. http://lds.org/portal/site/LDSOrg/me...____&hideNav=1 here is an excerpt Quote:
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03-29-2007, 09:13 PM | #10 | ||
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Quote:
Lavina Fielding Anderson, “Church Publishes First LDS Edition of the Bible,” Ensign, Oct 1979, 9 (bonus points if you recognize the author of the Ensign article's name) Quote:
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