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Old 08-07-2007, 07:36 PM   #17
ChinoCoug
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SeattleUte View Post
LOL. A bom apologist lecturing me about "methodology." The old big word dropping tactic. Personally, I don't know if religious people are more immoral than non-religious people. I have read studies that say the answer is at best inconclusive, and much depends on how you categorize Stalin and Hitler, as practicing secularism or a type of dogma and hence religion. I was simply resonding to Indy's clear insinuation that atheists used natural selection as a rationale to disclaim God with an ulterior motive, and citing a famously religious person (apparenlty often quoted in GC) to make the point that the case is not at all open and shut in favor of religious people. I simply employed a common rhetorical device, and unly your FARMSy friends have never engaged in a pretense of being scientific or systematic.
You haven't answered by question. What discipline are you trained in? I have a degree in economics and I'm trained in quantitative methods. Not a warm-fuzzy liberal arts guy. And I spotted endogeneity in your use of evidence. Your CS Lewis paraphrase does nothing to support your claim.

If "endogeneity" is too big of a word for you, let me illustrate with an example.

"Because high-crime areas have more cops on the street, cops cause crime to go up."
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