Quote:
Originally Posted by Archaea
Why wouldn't one just denote words which are non-smooth? Do you think it's related to a lack of spacing in some early documents? Btw, thanks for the help and if you're in town, I'll buy you a beer.
|
It's a good question, but I'd guess that you're right - it has to do with textual tradition etc. Occasionally, the same word will be spelled the same save the rough/smooth breathing mark, but IMO the smooth breathing mark should be understood unless the rough is indicated.
I have to copy-and-paste, then blow up the font to 14 or 16 to even make out the words, let alone the rough breathing marks.
I'd take you up on the beer (or at least a good conversation) if I could ever get close to your neck of the woods. Alas . . . . I'm trapped in the weather hell of the northeast for the foreseeable future. BTW, you're the only guy I've ever heard of (outside of crazy Renaissance geniuses) who's taught himself Greek.