Quote:
Originally Posted by Solon
I understood that to be a separate consideration. Sure, why couldn't Mormon edit as he saw fit?
This, however, doesn't explain why the author of Mosiah 14 quotes "Isaiah" 53 nearly verbatim.
There are multiple theories that could explain this away - Joseph Smith just used the language he was comfortable with - another group of Hebrews came over the pond - Jesus brought 2nd Isaiah with him on his Blackberrry - whatever. In the end, they're all theories, unsubstantiated by facts. That's okay - that's what religion's for - to believe in something that contravenes natural occurrences. But those experiences - along with these types of theories - might be better suited for the other religion category.
|
I understand the Deutor Isaiah argument, but don't some of the Nag Hammadi findings throw into doubt the Post-Exilic nature of the Isaiah writings, creating a possibility that the existence of a unified Isaiah existed before the time we generally attribute thereto?