[ute4ever]

Of all of the LDS apologists out there who have attempted to explain the difference between Joseph Smith's inspired translation and the historical linguistic translations of others, do you have any idea if those apologists have ever referred to his interpretation of the papyrus as a "springboard revelation"?

For example, while translating John 5:29, the prophet received the revelation now recorded in D&C 76. That vision is not something that had been removed from John 5, yet that chapter was the conduit (or springboard) used to receive the vision of the kingdoms.

I ask because, History of the Church V2:349 (Dec. 1832) describes the saints as having rumored amongst themselves that Joseph had purchased the mummies of Abraham, Abimelech, and Joseph in Egypt, and Joseph corrects them, stating the rumor "is utterly false." He did obtain Egyptian mummies and records, but not the bodies of ancient prophets. Our church members have a long history of seeking out exaggerations.

Which brings me back to my original point: is there record anywhere from Joseph himself that he ever referred to his inspired translation as anything other than that?