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Old 01-10-2008, 02:43 PM   #10
Archaea
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Join Date: Aug 2005
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Quote:
Originally Posted by creekster View Post
How do you know the author fo John's gospel used logos in the same sense as Philo or the stoics or any other school of thought? Logos also meant word apart from its philospohical context, right? How do you know that the author wasn't an adherent of some other group who had some other interpretation of the idea of a seminal reason or cause?

I realize I am not on the list of qualified posters, but that can't make me not ask questions, dumb or otherwise.
Of course, we don't know, but the fact that he used a word in a literary sense which by that time had developed an intellectual weight suggests he was aware of the teachings and discussions of his time. It ties in with Philo and yet it is also consistent with the then current Hebrew expressions. The dual applicability is what makes it so fun for nerds like myself or for real scholars like those approved. I imagine you're the typical stupid like a fox, because you probably have some dissertation on the subject just playing with an idiot like myself.
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