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Originally Posted by SteelBlue
A more accurate statement would be that there is no concrete evidence that he had sex with any of the women who were already married. This does not mean that he didn't. It only means that if he did, we have no proof.
It is easier to accept polyandry when we assume that he did not have sexual relations with women who were already married. However, if you take a look at what happened after Joseph died I think there may be some clues about the doctrine. You seem to really know your history, so perhaps you are already aware of the case of Zina D. Huntington. She married Henry Jacobs and later became one of Josephs wives. This was with Henry's knowledge and consent. After Joseph died, she was married to Brigham Young for time. Mr. Henry Jacobs stood as a witness to that marriage. Brigham allowed Henry to stay with Zina until the saints reached Iowa. He then told him that he was "walking in another mans shoes" and that Zina was now his (Brigham's). Brigham then took Zina and the children born to Henry and no divorce was necessary. She later bore children to Brigham.
Bottom line? It appears that one with a higher priesthood could "take" (with her consent) a married woman who was supposed to be his and no divorce was necessary. When exactly sexual relations began is not clear. They just didn't talk about that stuff much. But it seems to me that a sexual relationship would be consistent with the "higher" marriage. The part I don't understand is why some were allowed to stay with the original husband. It's all very confusing. But I think I've made my opinion on the matter clear in previous threads.
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That is very interesting. It is odd to me that no divorce was necessary and that some were allowed to stay with their 1st husbands(That term sounds wierd) but maybe divorce was rare at that time. I don't know.
You are definitely right about it being confusing.