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Old 01-23-2009, 05:27 PM   #10
Archaea
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RedHeadGal View Post
In a place like France, where they have the two marriage ceremonies, is one required to have two? What if you don't want the religious marriage?

For me, I consider marriage to be a religious ordinance, but I certainly want entitlement to the legal benefits provided by the state. Were I not religious, I'm not sure the inverse would be true.

And for some legal purposes, we already lump sexual orientation discrimination into sex discrimination. If you want to bring a Title VII suit alleging discrimination based on sexual orientation, you make the case for sex discrimintion. As I'm thinking about this, it does seem to be for the reasons SU states: the discrimination happens to a man (for example), because someone objects to him being attracted to men because he's a man, and that's what women should do.
In continental Europe, where the religious rite is not recognized, only those wishing it must undergo the rite.

To me, it makes more sense for us to go to a two step ceremony, the legal right endowment from the state and the religious rite for religious significance. I'd wager that's where we're headed.
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