It seems to me that passage pertains specifically to adultery.
To me it is not a valid comparison to liken the "burden" of abstaining from adultery with the burden of a gay person living completely alone (both emotionally and sexually) for his entire life.
I know you don't mean it this way, but a lot of people say, "We treat all people, whether gay or straight, exactly the same. Nobody is allowed to have sex unless they are married to that person. So everybody plays by the same rules."
That position is an obvious fallacy and displays a complete lack of empathy and understanding of what gay people must go through.
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