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Old 06-09-2008, 09:32 PM   #2
pelagius
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Archaea View Post
I realize Elder Nelson has already addressed this point years ago, but why do you believe translators use "perfect" in Matthew 5:48?

Do the English translations of this verse confuse you?
quote:ἔσεσθε οὖν ὑμεῖς τέλειοι ὡς ὁ πατὴρ ὑμῶν ὁ οὐράνιος τέλειός ἐστιν
KJV:
quote:Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.
NRSV:
quote:Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.
teleois means:
quote:complete (in various applications of labor, growth, mental and moral character, etc.); neuter (as noun, with 3588) completeness


Not a direct answer but my favorite approach to the Sermon on the Mount (the article does deal with Matt 5:48 but I don't want to split it from the context of the entire article) is the following:

Stassen, Glen H., 2003, The Fourteen Triads of the Sermon on the Mount, Journal of Biblical Literature, 267-308.

Here is a link:

http://www.fullerseminary.net/sot/fa...n/14Triads.htm

Also here is how I incorporated the article into a lesson I did on the Sermon on the Mount:

http://ss.diether.org/notes/NT/09-matthew.pdf
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