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Old 12-18-2007, 07:25 PM   #48
Tex
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SoCalCoug View Post
I'll just point out that Tex's interpretation - that it could have referred to normal gestational and birth - would be consistent if the statement were that Jesus was begotten of Mary - the father is not involved in the gestation and birth. I think the father's participation in the process of "begetting" a child is pretty clear.
Is there more than one way to impregnate a woman? [Insert sex joke here.] Even we lowly humans don't always do it the same way (in vitro, etc.) Why must JF.S's statement necessitate the Father coming down and having sex with Mary, in the way we think of it? All the prophet was trying to say is that God is the LITERAL Father of the son.

Methinks this is another example of humans boxing God into a corner.
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